[Sep 11, 2026] Prepare For The ZTCA Question Papers In Advance [Q17-Q36]

Rate this post

[Sep 11, 2026] Prepare For The ZTCA Question Papers In Advance

ZTCA PDF Dumps Real 2026 Recently Updated Questions

Q17. What is the security risk inherent in creating a split tunnel VPN, where some traffic is routed over the VPN tunnel and the rest over a direct internet connection?

The VPN traffic is exempted from any security policies configured on the direct internet uplink router or appliance.

You no longer have the visibility required to make decisions on those traffic flows that are going directly out to the internet.

A split ACL list, which means only half the rules will be enforced.

An issue between the built-in client VPN agent on most modern operating systems and a third-party VPN gateway upstream.

Q18. Zero Trust is about controlling initiator access. This is based on validating the identity of the user, and that is the sole attribute used to control access.

True

False

Q19. What is policy enforcement built to enable?

Network access to all available applications.

Blocking access to applications and the network.

Granular access from the verified initiator only to the verified application, under the correct risk and content controls.

Forwarding traffic on to a virtual DMZ.

Q20. What are the advantages that Zero Trust solutions offer over legacy network controls?

Ensuring that a user is correctly authorized at the application.

Delivering connectivity, regardless of network or location, but only for authorized and compliant requests.

By connecting an initiator to a cloud network-gateway edge and then routing the user traffic over internal networks.

Layering in IP-level ACLs, which can require thousands of rules for modern web applications that are constantly adding new source IPs.

Q21. What are some of the outputs of dynamic risk assessment?

A backup and restore configuration process, run manually during a change window.

An ML/AI-driven engine analyzing and determining application segments after wildcard domains are established.

Categories, criteria, and insights pertaining to each access request.

A full PCAP of the inline data transfer.

Q22. Where is it most effective to assess the content of a connection?

At the policy enforcement point, as close to an initiator as possible, for example the closest edge.

Within a data center deployed in a one-armed concentrator mode.

On disk, after first being copied several times for a backup.

Within an ISP’s fiber backbone.

Q23. Businesses undertake ________ to increase efficiency, improve agility, and achieve a competitive advantage.

Digital transformation journeys

Blue teaming exercises

Red teaming exercises

Disaster recovery planning

Q24. As a part of the first section of Zero Trust, Verify Identity, we understand the who, the what, and the where, in order to:

Revoke network access to unauthorized users, devices, and workloads.

Provide a secure set of controls for the initiator, requiring the initiator to go through layers of validation as they attempt to access an application.

Provide proper billing by counting the number of deployed end users within a customer’s environment.

Provide disaster recovery and business continuity in a “black swan” event context.

Q25. Why have traditional networks relied on implicit trust to connect initiators to workloads?

Security breaches were historically less frequent.

TCP/IP, the foundation of most networks, inherently favors connectivity over trust.

It was easier to create direct P2P links between all devices, providing connectivity for rapid- downloading applications like BitTorrent and file sharing.

Layer 3 ACLs are sufficient for blocking untrusted initiators.

Q26. By definition, Zero Trust connections are:

Independent of any network for control or trust.

Highly dependent on the network type, including whether that network is IPv4 or IPv6.

Based purely on a network appliance, constrained by how much CPU may be available.

Hairpinned through service chaining by an SD-WAN appliance.

Q27. How is risky behavior controlled in a Zero Trust architecture?

Permanent quarantining of devices in a particular VLAN.

Re-categorization of an initiator, and their organization, so that subsequent access requests are limited, deceived, or stopped.

Logging violations in a public database.

Deploying best-in-class security appliances.

Q28. Should policy enforcement apply to all traffic, including from authorized initiators?

A true Zero Trust solution must never allow any access without authorization.

No. It should only apply to unauthorized initiators.

Unauthorized initiators are blackholed by default.

Zero Trust allows all initiators to see the destination, regardless of role and responsibility.

Q29. There are alternative traffic forwarding methods to the Client Connector that leverage edge forwarding protocols to connect sites to the Zero Trust Exchange. Two of these protocols are:

IPSec and GRE.

Single Sign-On and Public Cloud Access.

Security Appliance and Router.

IPSec and IKEv2.

Q30. Content inspection of encrypted content at scale is widely available on most network-based security platforms, such as firewalls, to deploy.

True

False

Q31. Connections approved by the Zero Trust Exchange must then enable permanent network-level access for at least 30 days.

True

False

Q32. Risk within the Zero Trust Exchange is a dynamic value calculated to:

Be hashed, truncated, and stored in an obfuscated manner.

Give visibility of risky activity and allow enterprises to set acceptable thresholds of risk.

Provide access to the network.

Reduce processing load by enabling low-risk traffic to bypass less critical inspections.

Q33. How is policy enforcement in Zero Trust done?

As a binary decision of allow or block.

Without trust, for example Zero Trust.

Conditionally, in that an allow or a block will have additional controls assigned, for example Allow and isolate, or Block and Deceive.

At the network level, by source IP.

Q34. In a Zero Trust architecture, what is required to apply the first levels of control policy decisions?

Inspection of SSL/TLS connections.

Local breakout so that traffic goes directly to SaaS applications from branches.

Context and Identity.

Segmenting an OT network so that it is air-gapped from the IT environment.

Q35. Sometimes authorized and allowed initiators may request malicious access to services. What would be the best policy enforcement for an enterprise?

Allow access only during business hours.

Allow untethered access.

Conditionally block (Deceive).

Conditionally allow access and have a resource from Network Security review based on logs later.

Q36. Cloud infrastructure security posture, as well as cloud infrastructure user entitlements, can help contribute to a determination of connection risk; these are typically determined via:

Automated DevOps pipelines.

API integrations between the Zero Trust platform and the major cloud providers.

Multi-factor authentication.

Premium cloud provider subscriptions.