2024 Updated Verified Pass CISM Exam – Real Questions & Answers [Q326-Q348]

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2024 Updated Verified Pass CISM Exam – Real Questions and Answers

Dumps Moneyack Guarantee – CISM Dumps Approved Dumps

NO.326 Which of the following is MOST likely to be discretionary?

Policies

Procedures

Guidelines

Standards

Policies define security goals and expectations for an organization. These are defined in more specific terms within standards and procedures. Standards establish what is to be done while procedures describe how it is to be done. Guidelines provide recommendations that business management must consider in developing practices within their areas of control; as such, they are discretionary.

NO.327 While auditing a data center’s IT architecture, an information security manager discovers that required encryption for data communications has not been implemented. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Evaluate compensating and mitigating controls.

Document and report the findings.

Perform a cost benefit analysis.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

NO.328 Which of the following roles would represent a conflict of interest for an information security manager?

Evaluation of third parties requesting connectivity

Assessment of the adequacy of disaster recovery plans

Final approval of information security policies

Monitoring adherence to physical security controls

Explanation
Since management is ultimately responsible for information security, it should approve information security policy statements; the information security manager should not have final approval. Evaluation of third parties requesting access, assessment of disaster recovery plans and monitoring of compliance with physical security controls are acceptable practices and do not present any conflicts of interest.

NO.329 Which of the following BEST enables an organization to appropriately prioritize information security-focused projects?

Return on investment (ROI)

Privacy compliance requirements

Organizational risk appetite

Historical security incidents

C (77%)
A (23%)

NO.330 A new regulation for safeguarding information processed by a specific type of transaction has come to the attention of an information security officer. The officer should FIRST:

meet with stakeholders to decide how to comply.

analyze key risks in the compliance process.

assess whether existing controls meet the regulation.

update the existing security/privacy policy.

Section: INFORMATION SECURITY GOVERNANCE
Explanation:
If the organization is in compliance through existing controls, the need to perform other work related to the regulation is not a priority. The other choices are appropriate and important; however, they are actions that are subsequent and will depend on whether there is an existing control gap.

NO.331 Which of the following is the BEST way to address risk associated with using an outsourced technology service provider?

Review cyber liability insurance.

Perform due diligence on the provider at contract time.

Require management approval for vendor selection.

Implement a vendor management program.

NO.332 Which of the following is MOST useful to an information security manager when conducting a post-incident review of an attack?

Method of operation used by the attacker

Cost of the attack to the organization

Location of the attacker

Details from intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

NO.333 An information security team has identified traffic from a device to a known malicious IP Which of the following should be the team’s FIRST course of action to address this issue?

Turn off the device

Run anti-malware software on the device

Re-image the device

Disconnect the device from the network.

NO.334 Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason that an information security manager would contract with an external provider to perform penetration testing?

To obtain an independent network security certification

To mitigate gaps in technical skills

To obtain an independent view of vulnerabilities

To obtain the full list of system vulnerabilities

NO.335 The recovery point objective (RPO) is required in which of the following?

Information security plan

Incident response plan

Business continuity plan

Disaster recovery plan

NO.336 A CEO requests access to corporate documents from a mobile device that does not comply with organizational policy. The information security manager should FIRST:

evaluate a third-party solution.

deploy additional security controls.

evaluate the business risk.

initiate an exception approval process.

Section: INFORMATION RISK MANAGEMENT

NO.337 Which of the following are the MOST important individuals to include as members of an information security steering committee?

Direct reports to the chief information officer

IT management and key business process owners

Cross-section of end users and IT professionals

Internal audit and corporate legal departments

Explanation
Security steering committees provide a forum for management to express its opinion and take some ownership in the decision making process. It is imperative that business process owners be included in this process. None of the other choices includes input by business process owners.

NO.338 What is the MAIN risk when there is no user management representation on the Information Security Steering Committee?

Functional requirements are not adequately considered.

User training programs may be inadequate.

Budgets allocated to business units are not appropriate.

Information security plans are not aligned with business requirements

The steering committee controls the execution of the information security strategy, according to the needs of the organization, and decides on the project prioritization and the execution plan. User management is an important group that should be represented to ensure that the information security plans are aligned with the business needs. Functional requirements and user training programs are considered to be part of the projects but are not the main risks. The steering committee does not approve budgets for business units.

NO.339 Over the last year, an information security manager has performed risk assessments on multiple third-party vendors. Which of the following criteria would be MOST helpful in determining the associated level of risk applied to each vendor?

Corresponding breaches associated with each vendor

Compensating controls in place to protect information security

Compliance requirements associated with the regulation

Criticality of the service to the organization

Section: INCIDENT MANAGEMENT AND RESPONSE

NO.340 Which of the following is the BEST

Discretionary access control

Intruder detection lockout

Time-of-day restrictions

Mandatory access control

NO.341 An organization is the victim of an attack generating multiple incident reports. Which of the following will BEST enable incident handling and contain exposure?

The ability to effectively escalate incidents

The ability to acquire the appropriate resources

The ability to sort and classify events

The ability to isolate and secure the affected systems

NO.342 While classifying information assets, an information security manager notices that several production databases do not have owners assigned to them. What the information security manager address this situation?

Assign the highest classification level to those databases.

Assign responsibility to the database administrator (DBA).

Prepare a report of the databases for senior management.

Review the databases for sensitive content.

NO.343 The BEST method for detecting and monitoring a hacker’s activities without exposing information assets to unnecessary risk is to utilize:

firewalls.

bastion hosts.

decoy files.

screened subnets.

Decoy files, often referred to as honcypots, are the best choice for diverting a hacker away from critical files and alerting security of the hacker’s presence. Firewalls and bastion hosts attempt to keep the hacker out, while screened subnets or demilitarized zones (DM/.s) provide a middle ground between the trusted internal network and the external untrusted Internet.

NO.344 An organization’s HR department requires that employee account privileges be removed from all corporate IT systems within three days of termination to comply with a government regulation. However, the systems all have different user directories, and it currently takes up to four weeks to remove the privileges. Which of the following would BEST enable regulatory compliance?

Governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) system

Privileged access management (PAM) system

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) system

Identity and access management (1AM) system

NO.345 An organization is conducting a post-incident review to determine the root cause of an information security incident. Which of the following situations would be MOST harmful to this investigation?

Unencrypted logs of the affected systems were saved on magnetic tapes.

Antivirus signature update processes failed on the affected systems.

Systems logs were cleared by the administrator to free up space on the affected systems.

The incident response plan has not been updated during the past year.

NO.346 A contract bid is digitally signed and electronically mailed. The PRIMARY advantage to using a digital signature is that:

the bid and the signature can be copied from one document to another

the bid cannot be forged even if the keys are compromised

the signature can be authenticated even if no encryption is used

any alteration of the bid will invalidate the signature

Section: INFORMATION SECURITY PROGRAM MANAGEMENT

NO.347 Which of the following is the BEST advantage of a centralized information security organizational structure?

It is easier to manage and control business unit security teams.

It provides a faster turnaround for security waiver requests.

It is more responsive to business unit needs.

It allows for a common level of assurance across The enterprise.

NO.348 Which of the following is an information security manager’s BEST course of action when a threat intelligence report indicates a large number of ransomware attacks targeting the industry?

Assess the risk to the organization

Notify staff members of the threat

Increase the frequency of system backups

Review the mitigating security controls

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The CISM certification is a valuable asset for professionals who are looking to advance their career in information security management. It demonstrates to employers that the individual possesses the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively manage the security of an organization’s information assets. Certified Information Security Manager certification is also recognized by government agencies, financial institutions, and other organizations as a benchmark for measuring the competency of their security professionals.

The CISM certification exam is a rigorous and challenging exam that covers four main domains of information security management. These domains include information security governance, risk management, information security program development and management, and information security incident management. CISM exam assesses the candidate’s knowledge, skills, and abilities in these domains and tests their ability to apply these concepts to real-world scenarios.

Updated PDF (New 2024) Actual ISACA CISM Exam Questions: https://www.examstorrent.com/CISM-exam-dumps-torrent.html

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